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Self-Assessment Quiz
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1

Which of the following statements about the Theory of Constraints is FALSE?
A)The goal is to make money now and in the future.
B)Operating costs should not be a consideration, only throughput.
C)Inventory may be appropriate before a bottleneck.
D)Time lost in a dependent sequence cannot be regained.
2

There is only one correct way to define quality.
A)True
B)False
3

Which of the following is a difference between quality management and ISO 9000 certification?
A)ISO 9000 certification provides a competitive advantage.
B)Quality management focuses on continuous improvement.
C)ISO 9000 certification requires process documentation.
D)ISO 9000 certification is free.
E)ISO 9000 is interchangeable with quality management.
4

A Six Sigma quality management program implementation includes:
A)The designation of a leadership team.
B)The use of the DMAIC methodology.
C)The purchase of belts for newly-trained employees.
D)a and b.
E)all of the above.
5

Tools for problem determination and preliminary analysis include:
A)poka yokes
B)Pareto analysis
C)fishbone diagrams
D)b and c
E)all of the above.
6

Which of the following is NOT one of the knowledge areas identified by the Project Management Institute?
A)Time Management
B)Risk Management
C)Systems Management
D)Project Communications Management.
7

The Integration Management knowledge area includes process for all of the following EXCEPT:
A)interracial relations.
B)project plan development.
C)change control.
D)coordinated execution.
8

Which of the following can be sources of waste that detract for individual performance?
A)projectizing yourself
B)using unnecessary motions
C)making mistakes
D)b and c
E)all of the above.
9

As technology changes the interrelationship of people and organizations:
A)they become more productive.
B)social system changes become evident.
C)human labor is replaced.
D)a and b.
E)all of the above.
10

Information technology has the potential to:
A)create unstructured processes
B)apply analytical methods to vast amounts of data
C)achieve quality management
D)a and b.
E)all of the above.
11

Which of the following enterprise-wide information systems is based on a definition of processes based on best practices?
A)SCM
B)ERP
C)CRM
D)a and c
E)all of the above.
12

A personal balanced scorecard uses the same areas of performance as that a corporation would use.
A)True.
B)False.
13

Operations transform inputs into outputs by ____________.
A)Material handling.
B)Creating a competitive advantage.
C)Adding value.
D)Production.
14

Which of the following is not one of the ways in which operations management contributes to a firm’s competitive advantage?
A)By creating a perceived need.
B)By adding value to a combination of inputs.
C)By delivering a better service.
D)By manufacturing products faster.
15

Which of the following perspectives applies to individual performance?
A)systems thinking
B)resource-based view
C)environmental analysis
D)a and b
E)all of the above.
16

Which of the following is not an area of focus for individual performance?
A)using statistical thinking
B)protecting productive capacity
C)ensuring quality and continuous improvement
D)enhancing individual productivity.
17

Which of the following is not typically part of a system?
A)feedback loops
B)boundaries
C)components
D)environment
E)all of the above are typically part of a system.
18

Which of the following is not an environmental factor for operational systems?
A)politics
B)customers
C)corporate culture
D)suppliers
E)all of the above are environmental factors for an operational system.
19

Sub-optimization is:
A)optimizing one aspect of an operation to the detriment of the operation as a whole.
B)achieving less than is optimal with a decision.
C)useful in problem-resolution of sub-systems.
D)a holistic technique for system improvement.
E)all of the above describe sub-optimization.
20

If the tolerances fall within the UCL and LCL of a process, then we would consider the process to be capable.
A)True.
B)False.
21

Referring back to Figure 8-6, your landscaping company’s UCL for the c-chart is 7 and the LCL for the c-chart is 0. Adding to your previous sequence of 23 samples, you take four more. Which of the following sample counts would indicate that you may have assignable causes of variation?
A)5, 2, 1, 5
B)2, 3, 4, 5
C)2, 3, 3, 2
D)2, 5, 5, 1
22

When first establishing a process’ control limits, you should use a different sample size to increase between sample variations.
A)True
B)False
23

A business research framework can be used instead of systems thinking for effective operations management.
A)True
B)False
24

PESTEL analysis examines the competitive environment and the threat of substitutes.
A)True
B)False
25

“You cannot manage what you cannot measure” means that:
A)only tangible goods can be measured.
B)it is important to measure with precision.
C)measurement provides clarity on the desired results
D)you have to measure up as a manager.
E)none of the above.
26

Tracking a measurement over time is useful to:
A)detect cycles.
B)identify anomalies.
C)collect temporal data.
D)a and b.
E)all of the above.
27

Measurement systems should be audited to determine:
A)if they are informing decision-making.
B)if the cost of data collection is merited.
C)if measurements are being taking accurately.
D)b and c
E)all of the above.
28

Which of the following should be balanced in a Balanced Scorecard?
A)short- and long-term measures
B)internal and external perspectives
C)individual and group measures
D)a and b
E)all of the above.
29

A Balanced Scorecard must contain financial, customer, business process, and learning and growth measures.
A)True
B)False
30

New product development can originate with a technology push or a market pull.
A)True
B)False
31

Feasibility analysis:
A)is the last stage in NPD/NSD.
B)determines whether a product concept is viable.
C)can be done through a market research study.
D)is a requirement for dynamic stability.
E)none of the above.
32

Why do we use systems thinking in operations management?
A)Human bodies are complex biological systems.
B)An operation’s performance depends on the performance and interrelationship of its parts.
C)It has been used since World War I.
D)Engineers find it useful.
33

Effective systems do not need feedback loops.
A)True
B)False
34

Product development teams help against time-based competitive pressures by:
A)enabling concurrent engineering.
B)catching errors and design flaws earlier in the process.
C)leading to a more robust design.
D)a and C.
E)all of the above.
35

Which of the following is not part of a business research process?
A)Defining the problem.
B)Collecting necessary data.
C)Analyzing the environment.
D)Taking action.
E)All of the above are part of a business research process.
36

“Numbers are not always fully numerical” means that:
A)Some arithmetic functions may not apply to the data set.
B)Data collection can be sub-optimal.
C)Correlation does not imply causation.
D)Use at least two decimal places to be fully numerical.
E)Some people will not understand presentations of numerical data.
37

A service operation that has high labor intensity and a low degree of interaction and customization for the customer is a:
A)service factory.
B)mass service.
C)service shop.
D)professional service.
E)service matrix.
38

Which of the following is NOT an acceptable form for a work package?
A)Departments
B)Phases
C)Deliverables
D)All of the above are acceptable forms of work packages.
39

A network model contains:
A)nodes
B)arrows
C)logic
D)a and b
E)all of the above.
40

Quality function deployment is a methodology to:
A)compare what the customer wants and what you can do.
B)compare what the customer wants with your product’s specifications.
C)compare importance weights of your competitors.
D)compare functions with features.
E)none of the above.
41

The Theory of Constraints explains the critical path method by:
A)emphasizing that the goal to make money should be a primary objective.
B)relating the critical path to a bottleneck that determines the rate of throughput.
C)distinguishing between free and total slack in terms of throughput.
D)allowing SON, FNLT, and SNET constraints to be in activity definitions.
42

A Gantt chart is useful for:
A)communicating project status.
B)controlling project costs.
C)evaluating free and total slack.
D)measuring project quality.
43

Which of the following are not costs of quality?
A)prevention costs
B)appraisal costs
C)internal costs
D)external costs
E)all of the above are costs of quality.
44

Key principles of quality management are:
A)If it is not broken, do not fix it.
B)The customer is the next person in the process.
C)It takes everyone in the company to achieve quality.
D)a and b.
E)b and C.
45

A resource is rare if:
A)it is valuable.
B)competitors do not have it.
C)it makes the firm competitive.
D)it is protected by patent.
46

A resource may be considered inimitable if there is an underlying path dependency that created it.
A)True
B)False
47

Process designs vary by:
A)potential volume of production
B)investment in technology
C)type of job
D)a and b
E)all of the above.
48

Which of the following statements about technology is untrue?
A)It is the physical manifestation of knowledge.
B)Process technology is defined as machines and material handling equipment.
C)Technology can be knowledge manifest in products or processes.
D)a and b.
E)b and C.
49

Which of the following is NOT a typical reason for cost escalation?
A)The learning curve is inadequate.
B)The project was poorly planned.
C)Project control is weak.
D)The approach is changed.
50

A project post-mortem should be done when:
A)the project has failed.
B)the project is terminated.
C)the project is completed.
D)a and b.
E)all of the above.
51

Objectives should be:
A)explicit
B)measurable
C)numerous
D)a and b
E)all of the above.
52

Which of the following statements about SOWs is FALSE?
A)Assumptions highlight potential problems beyond the control of the project team.
B)The scope describes the beginning and end of a project, in terms of time, place, and results.
C)You should have only one, bottom-line, primary objective.
D)Only powerful stakeholders should be included.
53

First level effects of a technology are very difficult to quantify.
A)True
B)False
54

To determine whether your project is ahead or behind schedule, evaluate:
A)ACWP – BCWP
B)BCWP – BCWS
C)BCWS – BCWP
D)ACWP/BCWP
55

The ETC should consider:
A)BCWP/ACWP
B)risk factors
C)anomalies
D)b and C.
E)all of the above.
56

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a maturity model?
A)It reflects a progression over time.
B)The highest level of maturity results in an error-free environment.
C)The more mature a capability is, the less variability it has.
D)a and b.
E)All of the above are characteristic of maturity models.
57

When estimating task durations for a project plan, you should:
A)indicate how much time you will spend on the task.
B)use a “best case,” or optimistic estimate of the duration.
C)plan using elapsed time from a task’s start to completion.
D)a and C.
E)all of the above.
58

When conducting the ____________ using the Critical Path Method, you determine the late start and finish times for each activity.
A)forward pass
B)backward pass
C)slack analysis
D)critical path evaluation.
59

The critical path is defined as:
A)the most important activities
B)the path of longest duration
C)the activities with the least amount of slack
D)b and c
E)all of the above.
60

What makes re-engineering existing processes so difficult?
A)Organizing around outcomes is counter-intuitive.
B)Obliterating is fun, so everyone wants to do it.
C)Decision points become geographically dispersed.
D)Employees worry about job changes and eliminations.
61

PMSS are useful for:
A)helping the project team to develop the WBS.
B)assuring the quality of project deliverables.
C)determining what information the stakeholders should receive.
D)updating the project with changes to status.
62

Which of the following statements about project control is false?
A)It helps to address issues in a timely manner.
B)It involves assessing the current status of a project.
C)It is dependent on how the SOW is organized.
D)It helps to determine if and when changes are needed.
63

Which of the following is not a dimension by which quality can be measured?
A)features
B)quick-change expertise
C)variation from the ideal
D)humanity
E)all of the above are measures of quality.
64

Inputs are strictly tangible.
A)True
B)False
65

Quality is defined as the totality of product characteristics to satisfy customers’ needs.
A)True
B)False
66

Which of the following statements about the normal distribution is incorrect?
A)It is defined by two parameters, ? and ?.
B)It describes a wide range of naturally occurring phenomena.
C)The probability density between one and two standard deviations from the mean changes, depending on the spread.
D)It can be used to estimate other types of probability distributions.
67

Common causes are different from assignable causes because:
A)assignable causes enable the manager to assign blame.
B)common causes are purely random.
C)common causes indicate that the process is out of control.
D)assignable causes are unavoidable.
68

At each stage of NPD/NSD, the projects are examined more closely and require more information to move into the next stage of development.
A)True
B)False
69

A portfolio view of a company’s products means that:
A)products should be diversified by industry.
B)products should be diversified by life cycle.
C)products should be diversified by resource allocation.
D)b and C.
E)all of the above.
70

Which of the following is not one of the decisions to be made when implementing SPC?
A)Which rule of thumb should we use to identify improbable results?
B)What quality characteristic should we measure?
C)What is our sampling plan?
D)How much risk in being wrong are we willing to accept?
71

Which of the following guidelines should be considered when deciding where to take measurements in a process?
A)where the cost of poor quality is greatest
B)after a bottleneck
C)before a step that would obscure important quality characteristics
D)a and c
E)all of the above.
72

Which of the following factors is used to estimate the standard deviation, when using sample ranges, for an X-bar chart?
A).58
B)A2
C)*vc-bar
D)Cpk.
73

If the quality characteristic being measured as either defective or non-defective, the correct SPC chart to use would be:
A)X-bar
B)R
C)p
D)C.
74

It is important to capture as much information as possible about an operational process.
A)True
B)False
75

Which of the following is not a direct result of transcending time and space?
A)Driving and enabling globalization.
B)Changing industry structures.
C)Creating access and immediacy.
D)a and b.
E)All of the above are direct results.
76

The project control process should:
A)be performed on a regular basis.
B)provide status updates.
C)identify issues and concerns.
D)b and C.
E)all of the above.
77

To determine whether your project is under or over budget, evaluate:
A)ACWP – BCWP
B)BCWP – BCWS
C)BCWS – BCWP
D)ACWP/BCWP
78

It is easier to reconceptualize a process when you work in it.
A)True
B)False
79

Reverse innovation is when a company disassembles a competitor’s product and figures out how to build it.
A)True
B)False
80

Which of the following is a typical trade-off to be decided in NPD/NSD?
A)short- vs. long-term costs
B)potential benefits vs. risks
C)carry inventory or allow backorders
D)b and c
E)all of the above.
81

Throughput is important because:
A)it indicates how quickly you are making money.
B)it indicates how high equipment utilizations are.
C)it clarifies the organization’s purpose.
D)it determines how to allocate overhead costs.
82

A project is defined as a ________ ________ to create a ________ product or service.
A)operational process; one-time
B)long-term endeavor; new
C)temporary endeavor; unique
D)integration management; quality
83

Productivity is a measure of input need per measure of output.
A)True
B)False
84

Life Cycle Assessment (LCA) is a measure of:
A)the total cost of ownership.
B)the ecological impact of products.
C)aluminum recycling.
D)carbon footprint.
E)none of the above.
85

Which of the following statements about project success is FALSE?
A)Executive sponsorship for a project is crucial, particularly to get past roadblocks.
B)The best projects naturally grow, i.e., have scope creep, because the customer is so satisfied.
C)The commitment of the project team can mean the difference between success and failure.
D)Successful projects start with a clear and realistic plan, even though things do not necessarily turn out as planneD.
86

Customer satisfaction occurs when the customer’s expectations are greater than the deliverables.
A)True
B)False
87

A prudent business leader has a financial perspective of strategy that drives operational and marketing decisions.
A)True
B)False
88

Process flow charts can use which of the following attributes to convey meaning?
A)length and width
B)color and patterns
C)shapes
D)b and c
E)all of the above.
89

Which of the following is not an elemental transformation function?
A)Alter
B)Manufacture
C)Inspect
D)Transport.
90

Waste is considered to be an output.
A)True
B)False
91

In a Statement of Work, the scope describes the ________ and the objectives identify the ________ of the project.
A)how; when
B)what; where
C)why; how
D)what; why.
92

Which of the following does not contribute to effective meetings?
A)Discussing issues until everyone is satisfied.
B)Distributing a meeting agenda before the meeting.
C)Relying on videoconferencing technology.
D)Distinguishing between essential and optional participants.
93

In order for an individual to be effective, he or she must be part of a high-performing organization.
A)True
B)False
94

Which of the following statements about network models for project management is FALSE?
A)Milestones have zero duration.
B)Nodes can only represent activities.
C)There can be only one starting point.
D)Logic drives the project schedule.
95

When the scope of an information systems development project changes:
A)the SOW should be changed.
B)the project manager should be changed.
C)the schedule and budget estimates should be changed.
D)a and C.
E)all of the above.
96

Constructs represent the desired results.
A)True
B)False
97

It is best to use a single measure to keep the system simple.
A)True
B)False
98

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an effective new process?
A)Primary activities add value.
B)Throughput is a key performance measure.
C)Capacity utilization is a crucial indicator.
D)Loops in the process provide feedback about quality.
99

Highly decoupled services have no line of visibility, since the customer cannot see much of the operation.
A)True
B)False
100

Which of the following is NOT a criterion for evaluating process effectiveness?
A)Documentation
B)Clarity
C)Simplicity
D)Consistency.







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