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Multiple Choice Quiz
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1.
The evolutionary process that favors individuals of a species that are best able to survive and reproduce is called:
A)adaptation.
B)distinction.
C)natural selection.
D)accommodation.
2.
According to Paul Baltes, the benefits conferred by evolutionary selection:
A)increase with age.
B)decrease with age.
C)remain the same over the life span.
D)affect only the second half of life.
3.
Albert Bandura supports a bidirectional view of evolutionism in which:
A)environmental and biological conditions influence each other.
B)social behavior is the product of evolved biology.
C)biology does not affect human adaptation.
D)biology dictates human behavior.
4.
The units of hereditary information that direct cells to reproduce themselves and to assemble proteins are called:
A)chromosomes.
B)DNA.
C)genes.
D)genomes.
5.
Each human gamete has:
A)46 paired chromosomes.
B)46 unpaired chromosomes.
C)23 paired chromosomes.
D)23 unpaired chromosomes.
6.
The typical female chromosome pattern is:
A)YY.
B)XX.
C)XY.
D)XXY.
7.
A phenotype consists of:
A)genetic material.
B)gene locations.
C)chromosome abnormalities.
D)physical and psychological characteristics.
8.
The complete set of instructions for making a human organism is referred to as the:
A)genotype.
B)zygote.
C)genome.
D)DNA map.
9.
Which genetic disorder is caused by an extra chromosome?
A)Down syndrome
B)Turner syndrome
C)sickle-cell anemia
D)phenylketonuria
10.
Which of these syndromes is not sex-linked?
A)phenylketonuria
B)Klinefelter syndrome
C)Turner syndrome
D)XYY syndrome
11.
Which of the following is a genetic disorder that impairs the body's red blood cells?
A)hemophilia
B)Klinefelter syndrome
C)Turner syndrome
D)sickle-cell anemia
12.
Twins that develop from a single fertilized egg are called:
A)fraternal twins.
B)genetic twins.
C)dizygotic twins.
D)identical twins.
13.
Adoption studies are designed to test the different effects of:
A)parenting styles.
B)polygenic vs. single-gene traits.
C)environment and heredity.
D)knowledge of one's adopted status on children's behavior.
14.
Mary begs her parents to allow her to take piano lessons. After her first several lessons, it quickly becomes apparent that Mary has a natural talent for music. This example best illustrates a(n):
A)passive genotype-environment correlation.
B)evocative genotype-environment correlation.
C)active genotype-environment correlation.
D)active genotype-phenotype correlation.
15.
Rachel has always enjoyed reading. Now that she is a parent, she provides her daughter with many books to read, hoping the child will also learn to enjoy reading. How do behavior geneticists refer to this type of interaction between heredity and environment?
A)passive genotype-environment interaction
B)evocative genotype-environment interaction
C)influential genotype-environment interaction
D)active genotype-environment interaction
16.
A fertilized ovum is called a(n):
A)blastocyst.
B)egg.
C)embryo.
D)zygote.
17.
The period of prenatal development that occurs in the first two weeks after conception is called the _______ period.
A)fetal
B)germinal
C)embryonic
D)blastocystic
18.
The _____ of the embryo develops into the digestive and respiratory systems.
A)ectoderm
B)amnion
C)endoderm
D)mesoderm
19.
On average, the fetal period of prenatal development lasts for:
A)three months.
B)five months.
C)seven months.
D)nine months.
20.
Amniocentesis is a prenatal medical procedure that involves:
A)taking a blood sample from the mother.
B)drawing a sample of the fluid that surrounds the baby in the womb.
C)taking a sample of the placenta between the 8th and 11th week of pregnancy.
D)taking a blood sample from the fetus.
21.
Which of the following is a prenatal medical procedure in which high-frequency sound waves are directed into a pregnant woman's abdomen?
A)fetal x-ray
B)MRI
C)chorionic villi sampling
D)ultrasound sonography
22.
Organs and tissues in an unborn baby are most vulnerable to environmental changes during:
A)organogenesis.
B)the fetal period.
C)the germinal period.
D)trophoblast differentiation.
23.
A teratogen is a(n):
A)life-support system that protects the fetus.
B)agent that stimulates the formation of organs.
C)abnormality caused by premature birth.
D)environmental factor that produces birth defects.
24.
Exposure to teratogens during the fetal period is likely to cause:
A)anatomical defects.
B)spontaneous abortion.
C)problems in the way organs function.
D)a difficult birthing process.
25.
Which of the following is an example of a psychoactive drug?
A)tetracycline
B)aspirin
C)estrogen
D)alcohol
26.
A common characteristic of babies born to women who smoke during their pregnancies is:
A)facial deformity.
B)below-average intelligence.
C)restlessness and irritability.
D)low birth weight.
27.
Which infectious disease causes the greatest damage when it is contracted by mothers in the third and fourth week of pregnancy?
A)syphilis
B)rubella
C)genital herpes
D)AIDS
28.
A woman experiences an at-risk pregnancy when:
A)she has a negative Rh factor and her partner has a positive Rh factor.
B)she has a negative Rh factor and her fetus does as well.
C)she has a positive Rh factor and her partner does as well.
D)she has a positive Rh factor and her partner has a negative Rh factor.
29.
A lack of folic acid in a pregnant woman's diet can result in offspring with:
A)dwarfism.
B)Marfan syndrome
C)Down syndrome.
D)spina bifida.
30.
Which of the following statements is most accurate in regards to parental factors that influence pregnancy?
A)A father's age makes no difference to the health of his offspring.
B)Fetal death occurs most frequently in young mothers.
C)A baby with Down syndrome is rarely born to a mother under the age of thirty.
D)Adolescent mothers suffer the lowest infant mortality rates of any age group.
31.
How can maternal stress affect the fetus?
A)decreased intelligence
B)increased risk of prematurity
C)increased heart rate.
D)decreased growth rate.
32.
How many stages are there in the birthing process?
A)two
B)three
C)four
D)five
33.
What physiological change occurs within the fetus during the birthing process to ensure that he or she can withstand the stress of birth?
A)secretion of large quantities of hormones
B)decreased heart rate
C)decreased intake of oxygen
D)filling of the air sacs with fluid
34.
Which of the following is a complication of delivery?
A)anoxia
B)vernix caseosa
C)jaundice
D)toxoplasmosis
35.
A doula is a:
A)childbearing woman.
B)certified nurse-midwife.
C)caregiver who helps a woman throughout childbirth.
D)woman who is experiencing the early stages of childbirth.
36.
Which of the following are synthetic hormones used to stimulate contractions during the birthing process?
A)analgesics
B)anesthestics
C)epidurals
D)oxytocics
37.
Cesarean deliveries:
A)have a lower infection rate than vaginal deliveries.
B)are safer than breech deliveries.
C)are less common in the U.S. than they are in European countries.
D)are not performed as often in the U.S. as they have been in the past.
38.
Infants born three weeks or more before the pregnancy has reached full-term are referred to as:
A)low birth weight infants.
B)small for date infants.
C)preterm infants.
D)small for gestational age infants.
39.
Janet, a newborn, receives a score of 3 on the Apgar Scale. Janet's score indicates that she:
A)might not survive.
B)is responding well to the stress of delivery and the new environment.
C)performed as well as 70 percent of all newborns.
D)is in good physiological condition.
40.
Which of the following assessment tools was developed to assess the at-risk infant who is preterm and/or substance-exposed?
A)Apgar Scale
B)Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale
C)Neonatal Intensive Care Unit Network Neurobehavioral Scale
D)Newborn Behavioral Observations System





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